5-2-1.
Pre-taxi Clearance Procedures
a.
Certain airports have established
pre-taxi clearance programs whereby pilots of
departing instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft may
elect to receive their IFR clearances before they
start taxiing for takeoff. The following provisions
are included in such procedures:
1.
Pilot participation is not mandatory.
2.
Participating pilots call clearance
delivery or ground control not more than 10 minutes
before proposed taxi time.
3.
IFR clearance (or delay information,
if clearance cannot be obtained) is issued at the
time of this initial call-up.
4.
When the IFR clearance is received on
clearance delivery frequency, pilots call ground
control when ready to taxi.
5.
Normally, pilots need not inform
ground control that they have received IFR clearance
on clearance delivery frequency. Certain locations
may, however, require that the pilot inform ground
control of a portion of the routing or that the IFR
clearance has been received.
6.
If a pilot cannot establish contact
on clearance delivery frequency or has not received
an IFR clearance before ready to taxi, the pilot
should contact ground control and inform the
controller accordingly.
b.
Locations where these procedures are in
effect are indicated in the Airport/Facility
Directory.
5-2-2.
Taxi Clearance
Pilots on IFR flight
plans should communicate with the control tower on the
appropriate ground control or clearance delivery
frequency, prior to starting engines, to receive engine
start time, taxi and/or clearance information.
5-2-3.
Abbreviated IFR Departure Clearance (Cleared. . .as
Filed) Procedures
a.
ATC facilities will issue an
abbreviated IFR departure clearance based on the ROUTE
of flight filed in the IFR flight plan, provided the
filed route can be approved with little or no
revision. These abbreviated clearance procedures are
based on the following conditions:
1.
The aircraft is on the ground or it
has departed visual flight rules (VFR) and the pilot
is requesting IFR clearance while airborne.
2.
That a pilot will not accept an
abbreviated clearance if the route or destination of
a flight plan filed with ATC has been changed by the
pilot or the company or the operations officer
before departure.
3.
That it is the responsibility of the
company or operations office to inform the pilot
when they make a change to the filed flight plan.
4.
That it is the responsibility of the
pilot to inform ATC in the initial call-up (for
clearance) when the filed flight plan has been
either:
(a)
Amended, or
(b)
Canceled and replaced with a new
filed flight plan.
NOTE-
The facility issuing a clearance may not have
received the revised route or the revised flight
plan by the time a pilot requests clearance.
b.
Controllers will issue a detailed
clearance when they know that the original filed
flight plan has been changed or when the pilot
requests a full route clearance.
c.
The clearance as issued will include
the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
d.
ATC procedures now require the
controller to state the DP name, the current number
and the DP transition name after the phrase "Cleared
to (destination) airport" and prior to the phrase,
"then as filed," for ALL departure clearances when the
DP or DP transition is to be flown. The procedures
apply whether or not the DP is filed in the flight
plan.
e.
STAR's, when filed in a flight plan,
are considered a part of the filed route of flight and
will not normally be stated in an initial departure
clearance. If the ARTCC's jurisdictional airspace
includes both the departure airport and the fix where
a STAR or STAR transition begins, the STAR name, the
current number and the STAR transition name MAY be
stated in the initial clearance.
f.
"Cleared to (destination) airport as
filed" does NOT include the en route altitude filed in
a flight plan. An en route altitude will be stated in
the clearance or the pilot will be advised to expect
an assigned or filed altitude within a given time
frame or at a certain point after departure. This may
be done verbally in the departure instructions or
stated in the DP.
g.
In both radar and nonradar
environments, the controller will state "Cleared to
(destination) airport as filed" or:
1.
If a DP or DP transition is to be
flown, specify the DP name, the current DP number,
the DP transition name, the assigned altitude/flight
level, and any additional instructions (departure
control frequency, beacon code assignment, etc.)
necessary to clear a departing aircraft via the DP
or DP transition and the route filed.
EXAMPLE-
National Seven Twenty cleared to Miami Airport
Intercontinental one departure, Lake Charles
transition then as filed, maintain Flight Level two
seven zero.
2.
When there is no DP or when the pilot
cannot accept a DP, the controller will specify the
assigned altitude or flight level, and any
additional instructions necessary to clear a
departing aircraft via an appropriate departure
routing and the route filed.
NOTE-
A detailed departure route description or a radar
vector may be used to achieve the desired departure
routing.
3.
If it is necessary to make a minor
revision to the filed route, the controller will
specify the assigned DP or DP transition (or
departure routing), the revision to the filed route,
the assigned altitude or flight level and any
additional instructions necessary to clear a
departing aircraft.
EXAMPLE-
Jet Star One Four Two Four cleared to Atlanta
Airport, South Boston two departure then as filed
except change route to read South Boston Victor 20
Greensboro, maintain one seven thousand.
4.
Additionally, in a nonradar
environment, the controller will specify one or more
fixes, as necessary, to identify the initial route
of flight.
EXAMPLE-
Cessna Three One Six Zero Foxtrot cleared to
Charlotte Airport as filed via Brooke, maintain
seven thousand.
h.
To ensure success of the program,
pilots should:
1.
Avoid making changes to a filed
flight plan just prior to departure.
2.
State the following information in
the initial call-up to the facility when no change
has been made to the filed flight plan: Aircraft
call sign, location, type operation (IFR) and the
name of the airport (or fix) to which you expect
clearance.
EXAMPLE-
"Washington clearance delivery (or ground control if
appropriate) American Seventy Six at gate one, IFR
Los Angeles."
3.
If the flight plan has been changed,
state the change and request a full route clearance.
EXAMPLE-
"Washington clearance delivery, American Seventy Six
at gate one. IFR San Francisco. My flight plan route
has been amended (or destination changed). Request
full route clearance."
4.
Request verification or clarification
from ATC if ANY portion of the clearance is not
clearly understood.
5.
When requesting clearance for the IFR
portion of a VFR/IFR flight, request such clearance
prior to the fix where IFR operation is proposed to
commence in sufficient time to avoid delay. Use the
following phraseology:
EXAMPLE-
"Los Angeles center, Apache Six One Papa, VFR
estimating Paso Robles VOR at three two, one
thousand five hundred, request IFR to Bakersfield."
5-2-4.
Departure Restrictions, Clearance Void Times, Hold for
Release, and Release Times
a.
ATC may assign departure restrictions,
clearance void times, hold for release, and release
times, when necessary, to separate departures from
other traffic or to restrict or regulate the departure
flow.
1. CLEARANCE VOID
TIMES.
A pilot may
receive a clearance, when operating from an airport
without a control tower, which contains a provision
for the clearance to be void if not airborne by a
specific time. A pilot who does not depart prior to
the clearance void time must advise ATC as soon as
possible of their intentions. ATC will normally
advise the pilot of the time allotted to notify ATC
that the aircraft did not depart prior to the
clearance void time. This time cannot exceed 30
minutes. Failure of an aircraft to contact ATC
within 30 minutes after the clearance void time will
result in the aircraft being considered overdue and
search and rescue procedures initiated.
NOTE-
1. Other IFR
traffic for the airport where the clearance is
issued is suspended until the aircraft has contacted
ATC or until 30 minutes after the clearance void
time or 30 minutes after the clearance release time
if no clearance void time is issued.
2. Pilots who depart at or after their
clearance void time are not afforded IFR separation
and may be in violation of 14 CFR Section 91.173
which requires that pilots receive an appropriate
ATC clearance before operating IFR in controlled
airspace.
EXAMPLE-
Clearance void if not off by (clearance void time)
and, if required, if not off by (clearance void
time) advise (facility) not later than (time) of
intentions.
2. HOLD FOR
RELEASE.
ATC may
issue "hold for release" instructions in a clearance
to delay an aircraft's departure for traffic
management reasons (i.e., weather, traffic volume,
etc.). When ATC states in the clearance, "hold for
release," the pilot may not depart utilizing that
IFR clearance until a release time or additional
instructions are issued by ATC. In addition, ATC
will include departure delay information in
conjunction with "hold for release" instructions.
The ATC instruction, "hold for release," applies to
the IFR clearance and does not prevent the pilot
from departing under VFR. However, prior to takeoff
the pilot should cancel the IFR flight plan and
operate the transponder on the appropriate VFR code.
An IFR clearance may not be available after
departure.
EXAMPLE-
(Aircraft identification) cleared to (destination)
airport as filed, maintain (altitude), and, if
required (additional instructions or information),
hold for release, expect (time in hours and/or
minutes) departure delay.
3. RELEASE TIMES.
A "release time" is a
departure restriction issued to a pilot by ATC,
specifying the earliest time an aircraft may depart.
ATC will use "release times" in conjunction with
traffic management procedures and/or to separate a
departing aircraft from other traffic.
EXAMPLE-
(Aircraft identification) released for departure at
(time in hours and/or minutes).
b.
If practical, pilots departing
uncontrolled airports should obtain IFR clearances
prior to becoming airborne when two-way communications
with the controlling ATC facility is available.
5-2-5.
Departure Control
a.
Departure Control is an approach
control function responsible for ensuring separation
between departures. So as to expedite the handling of
departures, Departure Control may suggest a take off
direction other than that which may normally have been
used under VFR handling. Many times it is preferred to
offer the pilot a runway that will require the fewest
turns after take off to place the pilot on course or
selected departure route as quickly as possible. At
many locations particular attention is paid to the use
of preferential runways for local noise abatement
programs, and route departures away from congested
areas.
b.
Departure Control utilizing radar will
normally clear aircraft out of the terminal area using
DP's via radio navigation aids. When a departure is to
be vectored immediately following take off, the pilot
will be advised prior to take off of the initial
heading to be flown but may not be advised of the
purpose of the heading. Pilots operating in a radar
environment are expected to associate departure
headings with vectors to their planned route or
flight. When given a vector taking the aircraft off a
previously assigned nonradar route, the pilot will be
advised briefly what the vector is to achieve.
Thereafter, radar service will be provided until the
aircraft has been reestablished "on-course" using an
appropriate navigation aid and the pilot has been
advised of the aircraft's position or a handoff is
made to another radar controller with further
surveillance capabilities.
c.
Controllers will inform pilots of the
departure control frequencies and, if appropriate, the
transponder code before takeoff. Pilots should not
operate their transponder until ready to start the
takeoff roll or change to the departure control
frequency until requested. Controllers may omit the
departure control frequency if a DP has or will be
assigned and the departure control frequency is
published on the DP.
5-2-6.
Instrument Departures
The FAA has combined the
former standard instrument departures (SID's) and
textual IFR departure procedures into a single entity
called an instrument departure procedure (DP). DP's will
be published in either text form, like the former IFR
departure procedures, or in charted graphic form like
the former SID's. Regardless of the format, all DP's
provide the pilot with a way to depart the airport and
transition to the en route structure safely. All DP's
provide obstacle clearance and any DP may be filed for
and flown. Pilots operating under 14 CFR Part 91 are
strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night,
during marginal Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)
and Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), when one
is available. The following paragraphs will provide an
overview of the DP program, why DP's are developed, what
criteria are used, where to find them, how they are to
be flown, and finally pilot and ATC responsibilities.
a.
Why are DP's necessary? The primary
reason is to provide obstacle clearance protection to
aircraft in IMC. A secondary reason, at busier
airports, is to increase efficiency and reduce
communications and departure delays. When an
instrument approach is initially developed for an
airport, the procedure designer also does an
assessment for departures. If an aircraft may turn in
any direction from a runway, and be clear of
obstacles, that runway meets what is called diverse
departure criteria and no DP will be published unless
needed for air traffic purposes. However, if there is
an obstacle penetration of what is called the 40:1
slope, then the procedure designer chooses whether to:
1.
Increase the climb gradient; or
2.
Increase the standard takeoff minima
to allow the pilot to visually remain clear of the
obstacle(s); or
3.
Design and publish a specific
departure route; or
4.
A combination or all of the above.
b.
What criteria is used to provide
obstruction clearance during departure?
1.
Unless specified otherwise, required
obstacle clearance for all published departures,
including diverse, is based on the pilot crossing
the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet
above the departure end of runway elevation,
climbing to 400 feet above the departure end of
runway elevation before making the initial turn, and
maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per
nautical mile (FPNM), unless required to level off
by a crossing restriction. A greater climb gradient
may be specified in the DP to clear obstacles or to
achieve an ATC crossing restriction. If an initial
turn higher than 400 feet above the departure end of
runway elevation is specified in the DP, the turn
should be commenced at the higher altitude. If a
turn is specified at a fix, the turn must be made at
that fix. Fixes may have minimum and/or maximum
crossing altitudes that must be adhered to prior to
passing the fix. In rare instances, obstacles that
exist on the extended runway centerline may make an
"early turn" more desirable than proceeding straight
ahead. In these cases, the published departure
instructions will include the language "turn
left(right) as soon as practicable." These
departures will also include a ceiling and
visibility minimum of at least 400 and 1. Pilots
encountering one of these DP's should preplan the
climb out to gain altitude and begin the turn as
quickly as possible within the bounds of safe
operating practices and operating limitations.
NOTE-
"Practical" or "feasible" may exist in some existing
departure text instead of "practicable."
2.
The 40:1 slope begins at 35 feet
above the departure end of the runway and slopes
upward at 152 FPNM until reaching the minimum IFR
altitude or entering the en route structure.
3.
Climb gradients greater than 200 FPNM
are specified when required for obstacle clearance
and/or ATC required crossing restrictions.
EXAMPLE-
"Cross ALPHA intersection at or below 4000; maintain
6000." The pilot climbs at least 200 FPNM to 6000.
If 4000 is reached before ALPHA, the pilot levels
off at 4000 until passing ALPHA; then immediately
resumes at least 200 FPNM climb.
4.
Climb gradients may be specified only
to an altitude/fix, above which the normal gradient
applies.
EXAMPLE-
"Minimum climb 340 FPNM to ALPHA." The pilot climbs
at least 340 FPNM to ALPHA, then at least 200 FPNM
to MIA.
5.
Some DP's established solely for
obstacle avoidance require a climb in visual
conditions to cross the airport or an on-airport
NAVAID in a specified direction, at or above a
specified altitude.
EXAMPLE-
"Climb in visual conditions so as to cross the
McElory Airport southbound, at or above 6000, then
climb via Keemmling radial zero three three to
Keemmling VORTAC."
c.
Who is responsible for obstacle
clearance? DP's are designed so that adherence to the
procedure by the pilot will ensure obstacle
protection. Additionally:
1.
Obstacle clearance responsibility
also rests with the pilot when he/she chooses to
climb in visual conditions in lieu of flying a DP
and/or depart under increased takeoff minima rather
than fly the DP. Standard takeoff minima are one
statute mile for aircraft having two engines or less
and one-half statute mile for aircraft having more
than two engines. Specified ceiling and visibility
minima will allow visual avoidance of obstacles
until the pilot enters the standard obstacle
protection area. Obstacle avoidance is not
guaranteed if the pilot maneuvers farther from the
airport than the specified visibility minimum. That
segment of the procedure which requires the pilot to
see and avoid obstacles ends when the aircraft
crosses the specified point at the required
altitude. Thereafter, standard obstacle protection
is provided and the standard climb gradient is
required unless specified otherwise.
2.
ATC may assume responsibility for
obstacle clearance by vectoring the aircraft prior
to minimum vectoring altitude by using a Diverse
Vector Area (DVA). The DVA has been assessed for
departures which do not follow a specific ground
track. ATC may also vector an aircraft off a
previously assigned DP. In all cases, the 200 FPNM
climb gradient is assumed and obstacle clearance is
not provided by ATC until the controller begins to
provide navigational guidance in the form of radar
vectors.
NOTE-
When used by the controller during departure, the
term radar contact should not be interpreted as
relieving pilots of their responsibility to maintain
appropriate terrain and obstruction clearance.
d.
Where are DP's located? DP's will be
listed by airport in the IFR Take-Off Minimums and
Departure Procedures Section, Section C, of the
Terminal Procedures Publications (TPP's). If the DP is
textual, it will be described in TPP Section C as
previously done. Complex non-RNAV and all RNAV DP's
will be published graphically and named. The name will
be listed by airport name and runway in Section C.
Graphic DP's developed solely for obstacle clearance
will also have the term "(OBSTACLE)" printed on the
charted procedure.
NOTE-
Existing textual and RNAV DP's will be reviewed
individually by the FAA and, where appropriate,
processed for graphic depiction.
1.
A DP that has been developed solely
for obstacle avoidance will be indicated with the
symbol "T" on appropriate Instrument Approach
Procedure (IAP) charts and DP charts for that
airport. The "T" symbol will continue to refer users
to TPP Section C. In the case of a graphic DP, the
TPP Section C will only contain the name of the DP.
Since there may be both a textual and a graphic DP,
Section C should still be checked for additional
information. All information on new graphic DP's
will be printed on the graphic depiction. If not
assigned a DP by ATC, any published DP may be filed
and flown. As a general rule, ATC will only assign a
DP from a nontowered airport when compliance with
the DP is necessary for aircraft to aircraft
separation.
2.
All charted graphic DP's will be
listed by name in the index in the front of the TPP
volume.
e.
Responsibilities.
1.
Each pilot, prior to departing an
airport on an IFR flight should consider the type of
terrain and other obstacles on or in the vicinity of
the departure airport; and:
2.
Determine whether a DP is available;
and
3.
Determine if obstacle avoidance can
be maintained visually or if the DP should be flown;
and
4.
Consider the effect of degraded climb
performance and the actions to take in the event of
an engine loss during the departure.
5.
After an aircraft is established on a
DP and subsequently vectored or cleared off of the
DP or DP transition, pilots shall consider the DP
canceled, unless the controller adds "expect to
resume DP."
6.
Aircraft instructed to resume a
procedure which contains restrictions, such as a DP,
shall be issued/reissued all applicable restrictions
or shall be advised to comply with those
restrictions.
7.
If an altitude to "maintain" is
restated, whether prior to departure or while
airborne, previously issued altitude restrictions
are canceled, including any DP altitude restrictions
if any.
8.
Pilots of civil aircraft operating
from locations where DP's are effective may expect
ATC clearances containing a DP. Use of a DP requires
pilot possession of the textual description or
graphic depiction of the approved current DP, as
appropriate. ATC must be immediately advised if the
pilot does not possess a charted DP or a preprinted
DP description, or the aircraft is not capable of
flying the DP. Notification may be accomplished by
filing "NO DP" in the remarks section of the filed
flight plan or by the less desirable method of
verbally advising ATC. Adherence to all restrictions
on the DP is required unless clearance to deviate is
received.
9.
Controllers may omit the departure
control frequency if a DP clearance is issued and
the departure control frequency is published on the
graphic DP.
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